Wednesday, February 10, 2016

Did Christ die for all men?

If Christ is the Saviour of every single man, even the people that are in hell, would that make Christ a failed Saviour?

The word 'Saviour' is a noun describing the subject as having saved a person. Notice it's a past-tense action that precedes the noun, because nouns of this nature are usually given to someone after they have done that thing which the noun describes.
It is not a noun meaning 'going to save' or 'wants to save.'

This means that Jesus Christ can be viewed at in two ways:

1.) That He is a potential Saviour, that requires our permission.

2.) He is an effectual Saviour and has effectually 'purchased the Church with His blood (Acts 20:28).

Here's an analogy:
Let's say I am clinging unto the top edge of a large canyon - if I let go I die.
Now a man, a savior, is put in place to save me.

A.) He reaches half way down and tells me I need to, out of my miserable state and total inability of strength, to reach out the other half way. As a result, because I am so burdened by gravity (sin), my hand slips and I fall to my death.

B.) He reaches all the way, grabs my hand, and pulls me up.

Is A or is B a saviour?
Now... Is Christ a Saviour?

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