Wednesday, May 17, 2017

Response to Jesse Morrell's 24 Objections to Calvinism

"Twenty-Four Scriptural Problems with Calvinism" Refuted
Rather, 24 Scriptural Problems with Jesse Morrell


To those who disagree with Calvinism but are still within orthodoxy and saved by the blood of Christ - I urge you to ignore all the TULIPy points of this lengthy response and focus mainly on objections 7-12, to which you will see why I deem this Jesse a heretic and a devilish wolf preparing the destruction of many who believe his false Pelagian gospel.



Original post: https://biblicaltruthresources.wordpress.com/2016/08/16/22-scriptural-problems-with-calvinism-jesse-morrell/

Some of the answers I cannot get to today - answering the ones I did answer has already taken up my whole day - but come back and see if the unanswered questions get answered some other time. As for now, I want people to see what I have answered thus far, because people need to see Morrell's errors!


  1. "Calvinism says that God decreed all sin when the Bible says sin breaks the heart of God and He wills holiness and obedience from His subjects so that He is not in any way the author of sin (Gen. 1:31; 6:5-6; 1 Sam. 15:22; Eze. 6:9; Jer. 19:5, 32:35; Isa. 5:4; Zeph. 3:5; Ecc. 7:29; Matt. 6:10, 23:37; Lk. 7:30; 1 Cor. 14:33; Heb. 1:9, 1 Thes. 4:3; James 1:13)." Yes, sin offends and hurts God. But God decrees everything that comes to pass. The real question you ought to be asking is: does God CAUSE sin - or does He tempt people to sin? To which all orthodox Christians will answer with a resounding “NO!” God does not tempt people to sin (James 1:13-15). But this does not answer the question: from whose decree did sin come into existence? Man’s? God’s? If sin came into existence without God’s appointment, then all the Scriptures that show God’s pure sovereignty in all affairs can be taken out or ignored (Deut. 32:39, Ex. 4:11, 1 Chr. 29:11-12, Ps. 115:3, Isa. 14:27, Dan. 4:35, Amos 3:6, 1 Tim. 6:15, Rev. 4:11). Cause and ordain are not the same thing, and if you try to make them the same thing then you will have to answer why God ordained the hardening of Pharaoh’s heart and the 10 Egyptian plagues without being the author of Pharaoh’s sin of disobeying God’s command to let His people go (Ex. 7:3, 9:16, 14:4, Rom. 9:17). God decrees both good and evil, but uses both good and evil for His glory! God’s decrees have the purpose of showing the full range of His attributes, both of mercy and justice (Romans 9:22-23). Therefore, God can decree something without approving of it. Even though this is weird and somewhat a mystery, we cannot dismiss what God displays Himself to be in Scripture: sovereign over every sphere – even sin. This important question of theodicy is vitally important for the spiritual health of the Church. If we cannot affirm God's sovereignty even in sin and evil, we cannot expect to hope for any good that God can use for His purpose in creation. God's decrees are permissive in the sense of the action of moral evil and sin, and efficacious with respect to the matter of it as a natural act.
  2. "Calvinism says that men are under the wrath of God for the sin of Adam when the Bible says that the son does not bear the iniquity of the father and we will all give an account for our own deeds (Lev. 18:29; Deut. 24:16; 2 Kng. 14:6; 2 Chron. 25:4; Eze. 18:2-6; Eze. 18:20; Jer. 17:10; Matt. 16:27; Rom. 2:5-6; Rom. 14:12; 2 Cor. 5:10; 2 Cor. 11:15; 1 Pet. 1:17; Rev. 20:11-12; Rev. 22:12)." Please distinguish the difference between original sin and personal sin, there is a difference, and that difference matters. Yes, God punishes individual sin and does not punish all for the sins of one, but please don't stop there and assume that disproves original sin - because it doesn't. The Bible is very clear on this: Romans 5 discusses the federal headship of Adam's sin, which is imputed to a level so great upon all mankind, but we know the atonement (which you will deny in objections 8-12) is also so great as to cover all sins, but is effectual and applied only to the elect. Here is the chief thing that makes your theology heretical - in that you deny both the headship of Adam (which was a type of Him who was to come - v. 14) and the headship of Christ (we will see this latter denial in Jesse's further objections). This is full-blown Pelagianism, which denies the sinful nature of man and the substitutionary nature of Christ's atonement for a false gospel of "imitation" and human works. This heresy the Scriptures thoroughly disprove, as we shall see in objections 8-12.
  3. "Calvinism says that man’s free will was lost by Adam’s original sin when the Bible never says this but instead continues to appeal to man’s free moral agency after Adam’s fall (Gen. 4:6-7; Deut. 11:26-28, 30:11, 19; Josh. 24:15; Isa. 1:16-20; 55:6-7; Jer. 4:14; Hos. 10:12; Jer. 18:11; 21:8; 26:13; Eze. 18:30-32; 20:7-8; Acts 2:40; 17:30; Rom. 6:17; 2 Cor. 7:1; 2 Tim. 2:21; Jas. 4:7-10; 1 Pet. 1:22; Rev. 22:17)." No, none of those verses taken in their actual context says anything about man's free moral agency after Adam's fall. It takes a big leap of eisegesis to be able to assert such an error. However, the Scripture is clear as day about the sinfulness of man being so utterly depraved. There is none righteous, there is none who understands, there is none who seeks after God (Romans 3:10-11). Colossians 2:13-14 and Ephesians 2:1 tell us we are spiritually dead in sin. This deadness in sin is imputed from conception (Psalm 51:5), and we cannot by our own fallen flesh accept this gift of salvation unless through the working of God’s spirit in a monergistic regeneration of our stony hearts (1 Corinthians 2). Us Christians are saved because the father first drew us, and we will never be lost (John 6:44). Again, we cannot accept or do the things of God (Romans 8:1-7), nor can we please Him (verse 8) without the Holy Spirit first raising us up from spiritual deadness (verse 11). So yes, our free will is in bondage to sin and therefore not free until Christ makes us free! Jesus taught in John 8:33-36,47 that the natural man does not have the free will in himself to choose God, the will is in bondage and enslaved to sin.
  4. "Calvinism says that all men inherit a sinful nature from Adam when the Bible never even says that Adam’s nature was sinful but instead asserts that God forms our nature in the womb and we are in His image even after Adam’s sin (Gen. 1:26-27, 4:1, 9:6; Ex. 4:11; Deut. 32:18; Isa. 27:11; 43:1; 43:7; 44:2; 44:24; 49:5; 64:8; Jer. 1:5; Ps. 26:10; 95:6; 127:3; 139:13-14, 16; Ecc. 7:29; 31:15; 35:10; Mal. 2:10; Rom. 9:20; 1 Cor. 11:7; Eph. 3:9; 4:6; Col. 1:16; Jas. 3:9; Jn. 1:3" You're right, the Bible does not say Adam's ORIGINAL nature was sinful, but that is a very good deflection from what Scripture says about us after Adam's first sin! You are doing very heavy mental juggling here. Let the Scripture speak for itself and stop trying to force eisegesis into the Word of God! Read my answer for objection 3 (Romans 8:3, Colossians 3:5, Romans 6:6, Isaiah 53:6, Romans 7:14,25). 
  5. "Calvinism says that all events are the eternal will of God when the Bible represents God as grieved, disappointed, and surprised over many events that have occurred (Gen. 6:5-6; 1 Sam. 15:10, 15:35; Isa. 5:1-5; Jer. 3:6-7, 3:19-20)." Same answer for objection 1, but this is even worse and perhaps Jesse is falling into open theism here - it is not the will of God that all events that happen happen?! Read the long list of verses I provided in objection 1. Furthermore, if you are meaning natural events here Jesse, your objection couldn't be any more Biblically repugnant, read Isaiah 45:7.
  6. "Calvinism says that God has irresistibly decreed all events from eternity past, when the Bible says that God has canceled and reversed some of His own prophecies and teaches that the future is not yet entirely fixed and settled but changable (Gen. 6:7-8, 19:17-22; Ex. 32:10-14, Jer. 18:1-10; Ex. 32:10-14; Num.11:1-2, 14:12-20, 16:20-35; Deut. 9:13-14, 9:18-20, 9:25; 1 Sam. 24:16; 2 Sam. 24:17-25; 1 Kin. 21:21-29; 2 Kin. 20:1-6; 2 Chron. 12:5-8; Jonah 3:4-10; Jer. 26:19; Isa. 38:5, 68:8; Matt. 24:20; Mk. 13:20)." This is one of the greater errors of Arminius. No, God's decrees are not changeable but fixed! Known unto God are all his works from the very beginning (Acts 15:18), God works all things after the council of his own will (Ephesians 1:11). Have you never thought that perhaps God canceled and reversed some of His own courses for the sake of His eternal will? I wouldn't expect that would ever come to your mind, because you put God in a box of your own man-centered theology and humanize Him like the pagans do their gods.
  7. "Calvinism says that God has given man a moral law which He is incapable of keeping when the Bible says that God is just, never allows us to be tempted above our ability, and only obligates us to love Him with all of our ability (Deut. 6:5, Deut. 10:12, Deut. 30:6, Matt. 22:37, Mk. 12:30, Lk. 10:27, 1 Cor. 10:13)." Wow, you think you can keep the whole moral law perfectly? That is what makes you a Pelagian Jesse, you deny man's sinfulness for your false Gospel of works. No Jesse, no man can keep the whole law even after they are regenerate! "Because the carnal mind is enmity against God: for it is not subject to the law of God, NEITHER INDEED CAN BE" (Romans 8:7). But this inability to do good that is pleasing to God is cleansed when Jesus quickens us: "So then they that are in the flesh cannot please God. But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his. And if Christ be in you, the body is dead because of sin; but the Spirit is life because of righteousness. But if the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, he that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies by his Spirit that dwelleth in you" (v. 8-11). As for the verse that He never allows us to be tempted above our ability (1 Cor. 10:13), this verse has NOTHING to do with being able to live a sinless life or keep the moral law perfectly! In fact, it means just the verse opposite: it tells us that we cannot be anything BUT sinful, but God being merciful will not let the ransomed sinner fall away into condemnation. "If all this is so, then the Lord knows how to rescue the godly from trials and to hold the unrighteous for punishment on the day of judgment" (1 Peter 2:9). "If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us. If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness. If we say that we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us." (1 John 1:8-10). And yes, God obligates us to love Him with all of our ability - but why do we love Him? Well, as the Scriptures say: because He first loved us (1 John 4:19)!
  8. "Calvinism says that Jesus Christ came and took our punishment when the Bible says that our punishment is eternal hell ( 12:2; Matt. 25:46; 2 Thes. 1:9; Rev. 14:11)." Non-sequitur. Those who perish in their sins without Christ indeed go through punishment in eternal hell. Your theology is so wretchedly horrible as to suggest that ALL are going to hell - for really, there is not ONE righteous (Romans 3:10-11)! There is ample Biblical evidence that you are wrong that Jesus did not take our punishment! Indeed, I will show this further in objection 9, because paying our debt is the same as taking our punishment - as was understood clearly in those who knew old testament and Levitical customs (which are those whom many of the epistles which prove substitutionary atonement were written).
  9. "Calvinism says that Jesus Christ came and paid our debt when the Bible says that God forgives us our debt (Matt 6:12; Matt. 18:27; Lk. 7:41-42, 11:4)." Uhm... Why does God forgive our debt (read Romans 5:6-9)? I will paste an entire and single Bible passage this time to make the point against this Pelagian heresy: "But Christ being come an high priest of good things to come, by a greater and more perfect tabernacle, not made with hands, that is to say, not of this building; Neither by the blood of goats and calves, but by his own blood he entered in once into the holy place, having obtained eternal redemption for us. For if the blood of bulls and of goats, and the ashes of an heifer sprinkling the unclean, sanctifieth to the purifying of the flesh: How much more shall the blood of Christ, who through the eternal Spirit offered himself without spot to God, purge your conscience from dead works to serve the living God? And for this cause he is the mediator of the new testament, that by means of death, for the redemption of the transgressions that were under the first testament, they which are called might receive the promise of eternal inheritance. For where a testament is, there must also of necessity be the death of the testator. For a testament is of force after men are dead: otherwise it is of no strength at all while the testator liveth. Whereupon neither the first testament was dedicated without blood. For when Moses had spoken every precept to all the people according to the law, he took the blood of calves and of goats, with water, and scarlet wool, and hyssop, and sprinkled both the book, and all the people, Saying, This is the blood of the testament which God hath enjoined unto you. Moreover he sprinkled with blood both the tabernacle, and all the vessels of the ministry. And almost all things are by the law purged with blood; and without shedding of blood is no remission." - Hebrews 9:11-22. Honestly, this is the most obvious display of your Pelagian heresy, Jesse, or otherwise you have an IQ of a mouse to not get this essential doctrine of substitutionary atonement after reading the Bible. 
  10. "Calvinism says that Jesus Christ took the punishment of our sins when the Bible says that God forgives us our sins and remits our penalty (9:6, 26:28; Mk. 1:4, 2:10; Lk. Lk. 1:77, 3:3, 5:24, 24:47; Acts 2:38, 5:31, 10:43, 13:38; 26:18; Rom. 3:25, Heb. 9:22, 10:18; Eph. 1:7; Col. 1:14; 1 Jn. 1:9)." Same response as in objection 9, but this is denying the headship of Christ in the salvation of sinners and putting upon man the work of salvation, this is classic heresy. Let us look at what the Scripture says, because I tell you - not one of those verses when taken in context says what Jesse wants them to say! "But he was wounded for our transgressions, he was bruised for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace was upon him; and with his stripes we are healed" (Isaiah 53:5) - "Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed" (1 Peter 2:24). "Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God" (Romans 3:25). 
  11. "Calvinism says that Jesus Christ came and took the wrath of God when the Bible says that God still has wrath after the atonement, that sinners are not saved from God’s wrath until conversion, that the atonement was instead a justification of His mercy, and that believers who return to their sins return to the wrath of God (Lk. 21:23; Jn. 3:36; Acts 12:23; Rom. 1:18; 2:5, 3:24-26; Heb. 10:26-31; Eph. 5:6-7; Col 3:6; Rev. 6:17; 14:10; 16:19)." Non-sequitur, the Bible clearly teaches that Jesus Christ took the wrath of God upon Himself for sins (Romans 3:25, Hebrews 2:17, 1 John 2:2, 1 John 4:10, etc).
  12. "Calvinism says that Jesus Christ became sinful and guilty on the cross when the Bible says He died the just for the unjust and offered Himself without spot or blemish to God (Ex. 12:5; Lk. 23:41; Heb. 9:14; 13:8; 1 Pet. 1:19; 2:22-23; 3:18 Heb. 13:8)." Calvinism does not teach this, it teaches what any orthodox Christian would: that Jesus became sin for us who knew no sin and bore on the cross the due penalty of our sins "For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him" (2 Corinthians 5:21).
  13. "Calvinism says that those for whom Christ died can never perish when the Bible warns that those for whom Christ died can perish (Rom. 14:15; 1 Cor. 8:11; Heb. 10:29; 2 Pet. 2:1)." No, none of those verses say that, read the context of those verses. Scripture teaches that the will of the Father is for the Son to lose NONE that the Father gave Him. For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me. "And this is the Father's will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day. And this is the will of him that sent me, that every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on him, may have everlasting life: and I will raise him up at the last day" (John 6:38-40). I will later on make another post or edit this to explain each of these verses you put in parenthesis to show you why these verses do not teach the elect can lose their salvation.
  14. "Calvinism says that Christ only died for a few elect when the Bible says that Jesus died for the world and all men (Isa. 53:6; Heb. 2:9; 2 Cor. 5:14-15; 1 Tim. 4:10; 1 Jn. 2:2), making salvation available to all (Jn. 3:14-17; 12:46; Acts 10:43; Rom. 10:11; Rev. 22:17)." Context please. The Isaiah verse says "US" all, not all. Who is this us? Well, for "many" not for all (Isaiah 53:12). Hebrews 2:9 says he tasted death for everyone, but what is the context? Read the rest of the passage! "For it became him, for whom are all things, and by whom are all things, in bringing many sons unto glory, to make the captain of their salvation perfect through sufferings. For both he that sanctifieth and they who are sanctified are all of one: for which cause he is not ashamed to call them brethren, Saying, I will declare thy name unto my brethren, in the midst of the church will I sing praise unto thee. And again, I will put my trust in him. And again, Behold I and the children which God hath given me. Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil; And deliver them who through fear of death were all their lifetime subject to bondage. For verily he took not on him the nature of angels; but he took on him the seed of Abraham. Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people. For in that he himself hath suffered being tempted, he is able to succour them that are tempted." We see here that Hebrews 2 is very specific and particular in regards to the atonement: "in bringing many sons unto glory", "behold I and the children which God hath given me", "He took on him the seed of Abraham", "it behoved him to be made like unto his brehthren... to make reconciliation for the sins of the people" (not to mention these verses directly refute your denial of substitutionary atonement). Acts 10:43 has nothing to do with the extent of the atonement, it is all the believing ones who will be saved, but we know that faith is a gift of God (Ephesians 2:8-9). 1 Timothy 4:10 is the most common passage to try to "refute" limited atonement, but it doesn't! Let's see why: "As we study the terms "salvation" and "Savior" we find many nuances - many different ways - God saves. The most important aspect of salvation is to be "saved" from the wrath of God (Romans 5:6-9; 1 Thess. 1:10), but salvation also includes the idea of rescue from enemy attack (Psalm 18:3); preservation (Matt. 8:25); physical healing (Matt. 9:22; James 5:15), etc. God "saved" not only Paul's life but everyone else on board ship with him in Acts 27:22, 31, 44. There are numerous ways that "salvation" takes place, but that's a complete Bible study all in itself. When we study the word Savior (Greek: soter) in the LXX version (Greek translation of the Old Testament), we see the word used in a way that is far less grandiose than that which we generally think of the word. One example is Judge Othniel, who is called a Soter (Savior) or deliverer because he delivered the children of Israel from the hands of the king of Mesopotamia (Jud. 3:9). 2 Kings 13:5 talks of God giving Israel a "Savior" so that they were delivered from the hands of the Syrians. The judges of Israel were "saviors" as Nehemiah 9:27 states, "in the time of their suffering they cried out to you and you heard them from heaven, and according to your great mercies you gave them saviors who saved them from the hand of their enemies." (see also Psalm 36:6). A great deal more could be said to substantiate this idea of a savior, but I think the above would make the point. God provides food (Psalm 104:27, 28), sunlight and rainfall (Matt. 5:45), as well as life and breath and all things (Acts 17:25), for "in Him we live and move and have our being" (Acts 17:28). God preserves, delivers and supplies the needs of all who live in this world, and it is in this sense that He extends grace to them, saving them from destruction every day they live. God is also gracious in allowing many to hear the proclamation of the Gospel. All of these mercies are refered to as "common grace." It is common only in the sense that every living person gets it. This grace should actually amaze us because God is under no obligation whatsoever to give it to anyone. It can never be demanded. God sustains the lives of His sworn enemies, often for many decades! However, as wonderful as it is, it is only a temporal grace because all unregenerate people eventually die and will face the judgment (Heb. 9:27). I believe then that 1 Timothy 4:10 teaches that we have our hope set on the living God, who is the Savior (Soter - preserver, sustainer, deliverer) of all people (showing mercy to all, each and every day they live), especially of those who believe (who receive full salvation from His wrath and everlasting life)." (http://www.reformationtheology.com/2006/02/understanding_1_timothy_410_by.php). If anybody wishes to discuss the other verses used to teach unlimited atonement, please ask in the comments and I will try my best with my schedule to answer them.
  15. "Calvinism says that God wants most sinners to remain in their sins and die and go to hell, to somehow glorify His justice, when the Bible says God wants all men to repent and be saved (Eze. 18:32; John 3:14-17; Acts 17:30-31; 2 Pet. 3:9)."
  16. "Calvinism says that men cannot repent and believe when the Bible commands men to repent and believe and blames them if they do not (Matt. 11:20; 23:37; Mk. 6:6; Lk. 7:30; 13:34; 14:17-18; 19:14; 19:27; Jn. 5:40; Acts 17:30-31; Rev. 2:21)."
  17. "Calvinism says that men cannot repent and believe because they are born spiritually dead because of Adam when the Bible says that men are dead or alienated from God because of their own trespasses and sins and says the prodigal son was able to return to the father even though he was dead to the father (Eze. 18:4, 20; Isa. 59:2, Lk. 15:18, 15:24; Rom. 5:12; 5:14; 7:9; 7:11; 8:6; 2 Cor. 5:14; Col. 1:21; 2:13; Rev. 3:1)."
  18. "Calvinism says that God unconditionally predestined individuals for heaven or hell when the Bible says that God has chosen to offer salvation to the Jews and the Gentiles, grafting in some and cutting off others based upon their faith or unbelief (Rom. 9:30-33, 11:20-23)."
  19. "Calvinism says that God predestined some for Heaven and most for hell according to the pleasure of His will, when the Bible says that God sent Jesus to die for all, commands all men to repent and believe, is drawing all men unto Himself, is not willing that any should perish, and takes no pleasure in the death of the wicked (Eze. 18:32; Isa. 53:6; John 3:14-17; Acts 17:30-31; Heb. 2:9; 2 Cor. 5:14-15; 2 Pet. 3:9; 1 Tim. 4:10; 1 Jn. 2:2)."
  20. "Calvinism says that the righteousness of Christ is imputed to believers when the Bible says that our faith is imputed or reckoned as righteousness by God (Gen. 15:6; Rom. 4:3, 4:22; Gal. 3:6; James 2:23)."
  21. "Calvinism says that God doesn’t see believers if they sin, but see’s imputed righteousness instead, when the Bible says God is omniscient and nothing is hide from His eyes (Ps. 33:13-15; Prov. 15:3; Eze. 8:12; 9:9; Jer. 32:19; Job 34:21; Mal. 2:17; Heb. 4:13; Rev 2:2, 2:9; 2:13; 2:19; 3:1; 3:8; 3:15)."
  22. "Calvinism says that man cannot contribute to His salvation in any way but is saved in a monergistic regeneration while the Bible teaches the responsibility and necessity of the sinner to consent and cooperate with God in a synergistic relationship in order to be saved (Deut. 10:16; Eze. 18:30-32, 24:13; Ps. 78:8; Ps. 95:8; Heb. 3:15; Act 7:51; 17:30-31; Jas. 4:8; Col. 3:9-10; Eph. 4:22, 24; 1 Tim. 4:16)."
  23. "Calvinism teaches that no man is able to keep the commandments of God and that not even the grace of God is capable of delivering you from daily sinning, but the Bible teaches that there is deliverance by faith in Jesus Christ to overcome sin while in this life (Matt. 1:21; Jn. 8:36; Rom. 6:18, 20, 22; 8:2; 1 Cor. 10:13; 1 Thes. 3:13; 1 Thes. 5:23; Titus 2:11-12; Jude 1:24; 1 Tim. 6:14; 1 Jn. 1:9; 3:9)."
  24. "Calvinism says that true believers will persevere unto the end when the Bible exhorts believers to persevere, warns of damnation if they do not, and speaks of some who have departed from the faith (Exo. 32:33; Matt. 18:23-35, 24:13; Mk. 4:17; Lk. 8:13; Jn. 6:66, 8:31, 15:6; Acts 1:25 w. Matt. 19:28; Acts 11:23, 13:43, 14:22; Rom. 1:18, 2:7-10; Col. 1:21-23; Rom. 8:13, 11:20-21; 1 Cor. 9:27, 10:12, 11:32, 15:1-2; 2 Cor. 6:1; 1 Thes. 3:8; 2 Thes. 2:3; 1 Tim. 4:16, 1:5-6, 1:19-20, 4:1, 5:15; 2 Tim. 3:8, 4:10; Heb. 2:1-3, 3:6, 3:12-15, 4:11, 4:14, 6:6, 10:22- 23, 10:26-31, 12:24-25; Eph. 5:6-7; Jas. 4:4, 5:19-20; 2 Pet. 2:20-22; 2 Pet. 3:17; 1 Jn. 2:24; 2 Jn. 1:9; Jude 1:5; Rev. 3:5)."

3 comments:

  1. On your first point, you wrote: "Yes, sin offends and hurts God. But God decrees everything that comes to pass. The real question you ought to be asking is: does God CAUSE sin - or does He tempt people to sin? To which all orthodox Christians will answer with a resounding NO!..."

    Question: Are you suggesting that the decree was, with respect to sin, a permissive decree, that is, not that God decreed sin itself to occur but that God decreed sin in allowing it to occur.

    And, you continue, "God decrees both good and evil, but uses both good and evil for His glory! God’s decrees have the purpose of showing the full range of His attributes, both of mercy and justice...If we cannot affirm God's sovereignty even in sin and evil, we cannot expect to hope for any good that God can use for His purpose in creation. God's decrees are permissive in the sense of the action of moral evil and sin, and efficacious with respect to the matter of it as a natural act."

    Questions:

    1. That "God’s decrees have the purpose of showing the full range of His attributes, both of mercy and justice," are you suggesting that sin was necessary in order for God to demonstrate his mercy and justice?

    2. Again, when you say, "If we cannot affirm God's sovereignty even in sin and evil, we cannot expect to hope for any good that God can use for His purpose in creation," are you reaffirming the necessity of sin in order for God to fulfill His purpose in and for creation?

    3. Not sure I understand this sentence: "God's decrees are permissive in the sense of the action of moral evil and sin, and efficacious with respect to the matter of it as a natural act." Please explain.

    Thanks!

    (Note: just for clarification, I lean with Arminian theology and, therefore, do not hold the doctrinal tenets subscribed by Jesse).

    ReplyDelete
    Replies
    1. 1.) God used sin and evil in order to show the fullness of His mercy and justice. He could've used whatever He pleased, but He saw it fit to use sin to bring to pass the fullness of His justice - and Christ to the fullness of His mercy. I can't answer why this is so - I don't see why God could've just saved everyone and never allowed sin and just show mercy, but God does as He wills, who is His counselor, who can say "what doest Thou?"

      2.) As with question 1, God uses sin and evil because of His perfect council deemed it necessary for whatever reason to bring about His redemptive purpose. What other than that can any mortal say to the Immortal God?

      3.) Yes this is a confusing statement, and I believe it is 17th century English which makes it harder to understand (I got this statement from the shorter catechism of the Westminster Confession). What I got out of this statement can be helped by this analogy:
      Image you are a parent of a child. Your child is in his messy room playing with his toys. You tell him to clean his room and walk away knowing he isn't going to clean his room. By your walking away from the situation you've ordained the situation for his disobedience, but have not forced him to disobey you (you just know it is in his nature to disobey you). This is how God's decrees work with regards to sin and the fall (from my understanding), He knows what's going to pass because He decreed it to come to pass, but instead of coercing sin He ordains the means by which the sin can come about. So therefore His decree is permissive in the sense of the action of moral evil and sin, but efficacious with respect to the matter of it as a natural act (because God knows what will come to pass). However, God's knowing is much more sure than your knowing - that's why my analogy may not be perfect.

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    2. I hope I did not sound too forceful, but I believe what I said was necessary to get my point across.

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